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Dear Ye Hudi,
YOU SAID: Thank for your email. I was referring to your article So you don’t believe Yeshua is God. Your very first sentence says, “The Refiner's Fire has "taken on" many websites that claim to have proof about Yeshua's not being the Messiah or God Incarnate. This means you believe that Yeshua is Mashiach and god incarnate. I raised two questions: 1 - Scriptures never ever say that “Yeshua is god”. 2 – Per your theology Yeshua cannot be Mashiach.
MY RESPONSE: Yes, we do believe Yeshua is YHWH come in the flesh. He was an aspect of YHWH; he didn't replace Him! You're comparing apples to oranges, and I believe my explanation about the "arm" of YHWH (in a previous email) suffices as explanation, even though you're attempting to play word games with me.
It is obvious that you are confusing the office of Messiah as the corban-offering of our transgressions which must be a man and the divine and singular spirit of YHWH that Tanakh says will dwell inside that man, side-by-side, but separate from Messiah's humanity. The Scriptures, Old and New, clearly testify to this (Isaiah 11:1-2, 53:1-12; Zechariah 12:10). In the NT, the Aramaic use of Master YHWH is applied to Y'shua. In many places, like 1 Corinthians 12:3, we are told "and no one can know THAT Y'SHUA IS YHWH BUT BY THE RUACH HA KODESH"!
YOU SAID:YOU SAID: Your email did not give me any Scriptural proof about your beliefs. We will come to my two questions some other time but allow me to address some of the points in your email even though you use lot of analogy and not many Scriptural verses.
MY RESPONSE: You want Scriptural proof? Here it is: Qualifications of Messiah, Yeshua is Elohim in the flesh, The Biblical Feasts and their eternal signifiance. You tell me who else could POSSIBLY have fulfilled all these "qualifications" besides Yeshua! Schneerson, perhaps?
But the other aspect of Isaiah 53 is that even the prophet himself did not believe what YHWH was telling him (Who would have believed or report...), and because of that line, Israel herself will reject the true Messiah, whoever he is or is not. So, whatever you think the truth is with repsect to Messiah as a man, as Israel or as some amorphous period of distant time, that interpretation as vouchsafed in Rabbinic Judaism is, by defintion of the Scripture, incorrect. Israel will NOT know the true Messiah prior to the End Times. That is a fact. But they WILL know Y'shua at the end.
YOU SAID: Almighty’s name is spelled “Yud Hey Vav Hey” and Yeshua is spelled “Yud Shin Vav Ayin”. The word Yeshua does not have “Yud Hey Vav Hey’s name in it. Shemot 23.20-22 is not talking about “Mashiach”. This is what I mean by “shooting the arrow and then drawing the circle around it. You find the Scriptures in Tanak to suit your theology. The word “Malakh” means messenger and not angel. Nowhere in the Scripture denotes that Malakh is Yeshua.qnoma – Peshita and Aramaic
MY RESPONSE: I'm sorry to say this, but you don't know what you are talking about. The Aramaic of the Peshitta calls Y'shua YHWH many, many times. Luke 2:11, 1 Corinthians 12:3, Colossians 1 and 2 (all over the place) Philippians 2:9-10, are just a few of these. Acts 2:236-38 calls Y'shua "YHWH and Messiah". You may disagree with that idea, but the language in the Peshitta cannot be interpreted any other way. If you don't understand the difference between Mari/Maran and MarYAH, perhaps more study is in order. If you don't understand how differently conjugated words can come out spelled the same, but how plural verbs tell us MarYAH refers to YHWH and other times is third person plural from Mar, then I can't help you either....The same markers that indicate plurality, the verbs that are always clearly singular or plural make this distinction 100 percent certain. I stand by the Eastern Aramaic traditions and the manuscripts record in this regard.
As for Shemot 23:20-22, you miss the point. MALAK does not have to mean "angel" but MESSENGER, and these can be human or heavenly, much the same way Elohim/elohim and ADONAI/adonai can refer to men or deity. I ask that you get a grip on your terminology and context before you make anymore broad-based accusations that have no merit in either Hebrew or Aramaic.
YOU SAID: Original Apostolic Writings (NT) were written in Hebrew (Shem Tov Mattityahu, Eusebius says that Toma (Thomas) took Hebrew Mattityahu to Hodu (India) and Ebionintes used only Hebrew gospels. Yeshua spoke Hebrew (Shaul and Yehudi people spoke Hebrew) and not Aramaic (Yochanan 19.20-Inscription on the cross-started with Hebrew then Latin and then Greek. Notice no Aramaic because Aramaic was not the spoken language at the time, 20.16- Miriam spoke in Hebrew to Yeshua, Acts 21.40, 22.2 (Here Greek word dialektos means speech, language and not dialect), 26.14 (Here Yeshua speaks to Shaul in Hebrew language).
MY RESPONSE: Oh yawn, stretch. What do you think the targums in Aramaic were for if the Hebrew was sufficient? What do you think the Aramaic portions of Esther and Daniel were for? Do you know that TALITHA CUMI is Aramaic form and not Hebrew? Why is it we have BAR MITZVAH and not BEN MITZVAH if no one got Aramaic? Why do you feel your KEPPIE (Aramaic for "head", Hebrew is RESH) when you are ill? Have you read Palestinian Talmud Sotah 7:2? If not, verify my quote: "My son, let not the ARAMAIC be lightly esteemed by you as the Holy One, blessed be He, has seen fit to GIVIE IT VOICE IN THE TORAH AND THE PROPHETS AND THE WRITINGS." Why do the Rabbis who wrote the Mishnah call the commands of the Torah by it's ARAMAIC form of AURAYTA, which by the way appears in Matthew's ARAMAIC Gospel in the same context 3 times? Do you know that Kaddish is Aramaic? Do you know the Talmud and Zohar are also Aramaic? If not, then you need to see these things more clearly because right now, you don't know what you are talking about. And finally, 99% of scholars agree that DAILEKTOS HEBRAIDI refers to the Judean Aramaic dialect and not the Hebrew language.
YOU SAID: You believe in the unbiblical trinty (Even word does not appear in the Tanak or Apostolic Writings) or some form of it (You wrote: As such you may have three qnomeh, but only ONE divine nature). This is why you are using the word qnoma. To my knowledge qnoma, or hypostasis, is used only in references to the holy trinity by those who believe in the trinity.
MY RESPONSE: If you're going to challenge me, at least READ my website articles to find out exactly what I espouse. Show me exactly where on my website that the "trinity" is EVER taught! You set up a false parrallel that it has to be Trinity or a completely human Messiah. This is not true. If you would learn Qnoma theory you will begin to understand....
YOU SAID: Shemot 6:6, Yeshayahu 53:1 uses words “natah” meaning to stretch out, spread out, extend, incline or bend and “zeroa” meaning arm, shoulder, strength. To prove your analogy of body, mind and limb you quote above verses. This does not prove anything. Yeshua is not YHVH’s arm. Yeshua is a servant of YHVH. Yeshua does what YHVH tells him to do. Yeshua was sent or ordered by YVHV to earth (Yochanan 3.16 says God so loved the world that he gave his only son). God the Father made first sacrifice by sacrificing his son. Like Yitzhak, Yeshua just obeyed his father and his God in heaven (Yochanan 20.17). Other Christians use analogy of water, steam and ice or book has three sides.
MY RESPONSE: And the Word (Miltha) stretched out from YHWH's mouth and created the heavens (Ps 33:6). Again you confuse the human Y'shua in the office of Messiah and the Spirit of YHWH that Tanakh said would rest on him.
YOU SAID: Shali:The divine side of the Son is not separate from YHWH. YHVH and Yeshua are two separate beings period. You see that in Mattityahu 3.17 (YHVH spoke from Heaven while Yeshua was on the earth), 26.64 (Here Yeshua clearly says that He is sitting on the right hand of the Power (His Father and Almighty God). You correctly used the phrase “likeness or “image of Elohim” and not god. One thing you may or may not know is this that YHVH did not create “us” in his image. So what “image of Elohim means? Firstly, Elohim is an attribute and not a name of God. Man was created in justice with the attribute of strict justice. That is why YHVH used the name Elohim.
MY RESPONSE: Only Y'shua is the malkh that has YAH and not EL in his name. Only Y'shua is the malakh who can forgive sin. But the Qnoma in him was from YHWH, an occurrence of the one divine nature, which in Hebrews is the TZELMA (an Aramaic word) meaning EXACT REPRESENTATION/IMAGE. The Qnoma from YHWH is the image of YHWH's nature. Again, please go and study this from the Aramaic before you make these silly statements.
YOU SAID: Avraham is Elohim (Bereshit 23.6), Moshe is Elohim (Shemot 4.16, 7.1), Shemuel is Elohim (1 Shemuel 28:13), Judges are Elohim (Shemot 21.6). Lastly even false gos are called Elohim Bereishit 31.30, 1Shemuel 7.3).
MY RESPONSE: Agency and nature are two different things. Again, yawn stretch.
Shalom, Shali
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